Question:
Question: Mark 9:38-41, & Luke 9:49,50. ?? In these two passages of scripture we see John telling the Lord they had saw a man casting out devils in Christs Name.John said they forbade him because he followed them not. I’m assuming this man was not one of the Lords disciples here, as he followed not the Apostles and they did not recognise his authority to do such things as casting out demons, not being a follower of Christ. Why then does the Lord say, “Forbid him not: for there is no man which shall do a miracle in my name, that can speak lightly of me. For he that is not against us is on our part.” Mk. 9:39,40. Now I am aware of the ecumenical movement of today, and the error and deception involved. My question is; Why did the Apostles get rebuked for forbidding this man? He wasn’t among the followers of the Lord. Some could use these passages to promote ecumenical unity, but what do you think? Thought: Could this be the same thing the Apostle Paul meant in Philippians 1: 15-18??? Whether by pretence, or in truth, Christ is preached, and I therein do rejoice. This doesn’t seem to fit the scriptural command to be separate from the world, and yet not forsaking the assembling of yourselves together, i.e. the unity of the believers?? Perhaps you can offer some light into this for me, and thank you for your time and help.Continue reading